responses to 4NT after Jacoby

[dfm]

I believe it's standard that 4NT is quantitative after a Jacoby transfer (i.e., 1NT-2D/H-2H/S-4NT) so it seems that opener's second rebid should just be to place the contract: Pass, 5H/S, 6H/S, or 6NT.

Is there ever a situation when opener should bid something else, and if so, what do other bids mean? For example, what, if anything, should 1NT-2H-2S-4NT-5C mean?

[Barry Margolin]

Post by dfm
I believe it's standard that 4NT is quantitative after a Jacoby transfer
(i.e., 1NT-2D/H-2H/S-4NT) so it seems that opener's second rebid should just
be to place the contract: Pass, 5H/S, 6H/S, or 6NT.
Is there ever a situation when opener should bid something else, and if so,
what do other bids mean? For example, what, if anything, should
1NT-2H-2S-4NT-5C mean?

I think it should be suggesting an alternative strain for slam, so a
maximum with a good 5-card suit and denying a fit with responder.

[Steve Willner]

Post by Barry Margolin

Post by dfm
For example, what, if anything, should
1NT-2H-2S-4NT-5C mean?

I think it should be suggesting an alternative strain for slam, so a
maximum with a good 5-card suit and denying a fit with responder.

Why five cards and not four? A 4-4 fit should be great for slam, and
with a 5c suit, you can bid 6C. Isn't that how you'd bid over 1NT-4NT?

[Barry Margolin]

Post by Steve Willner

Post by Barry Margolin

Post by dfm
For example, what, if anything, should
1NT-2H-2S-4NT-5C mean?

I think it should be suggesting an alternative strain for slam, so a
maximum with a good 5-card suit and denying a fit with responder.

Why five cards and not four? A 4-4 fit should be great for slam, and
with a 5c suit, you can bid 6C. Isn't that how you'd bid over 1NT-4NT?

I think simply because there isn't enough room to distinguish. Partner
needs to know whether he can raise with 3 or only with 4.

And if it's a 4-card suit, you're probably just as well playing in NT.

[Fred.]

Post by Barry Margolin

Post by Steve Willner

Post by Barry Margolin

Post by dfm
For example, what, if anything, should
1NT-2H-2S-4NT-5C mean?

I think it should be suggesting an alternative strain for slam, so a
maximum with a good 5-card suit and denying a fit with responder.

Why five cards and not four? A 4-4 fit should be great for slam, and
with a 5c suit, you can bid 6C. Isn't that how you'd bid over 1NT-4NT?

I think simply because there isn't enough room to distinguish. Partner
needs to know whether he can raise with 3 or only with 4.
And if it's a 4-card suit, you're probably just as well playing in NT.
--
Barry Margolin
Arlington, MA

Why wouldn't opener have room to bid and rebid a 5-card
suit below 6NT?

Fred.

[Fred.]

Post by Steve Willner

Post by Barry Margolin

Post by dfm
For example, what, if anything, should
1NT-2H-2S-4NT-5C mean?

I think it should be suggesting an alternative strain for slam, so a
maximum with a good 5-card suit and denying a fit with responder.

Why five cards and not four? A 4-4 fit should be great for slam, and
with a 5c suit, you can bid 6C. Isn't that how you'd bid over 1NT-4NT?

With 5H+4S responder should have bid Stayman. With 5H+4m and slam
interest responder should have bid 3m after the transfer. I'd think
opener's 5-card suit might need to be pretty good to give dummy a
ruffing tick when responder's short suit is likely a doubleton and
responder will have only 3 trump.

This is quite different from the situation where the bidding has
begun 1NT-4NT. Here it is the 4-4 fit which is most likely to
produce an extra trick.

Fred.

[Lorne Anderson]

Post by dfm
I believe it's standard that 4NT is quantitative after a Jacoby
transfer (i.e., 1NT-2D/H-2H/S-4NT) so it seems that opener's second
rebid should just be to place the contract: Pass, 5H/S, 6H/S, or
6NT.

It is not standard where I live but IMO is clearly superior and I try
and play it with most of my partners (some will not). If you want to
bid blackwood you can just set trumps with 4C (who cares if you do not
have a splinter) and then bid 4N.

Post by dfm
Is there ever a situation when opener should bid something else, and
if so, what do other bids mean? For example, what, if anything,
should 1NT-2H-2S-4NT-5C mean?

You could play it as a slam try suggesting 6S if you have a missing high
club, or you might want to agree it is a blackwood response when you are
max with a fit but have poor controls and may be missing 2 key cards.

I play a weak NT and have agreed the latter as I might have a 14 count
with a fit but no key cards or 1 key card and want to check. I do the
same after 1N - 4N as well. Obviously 5N is to play after this.

[Sandy Barnes]

Post by dfm
I believe it's standard that 4NT is quantitative after a Jacoby transfer (i.e., 1NT-2D/H-2H/S-4NT) so it seems that opener's second rebid should just be to place the contract: Pass, 5H/S, 6H/S, or 6NT.
Is there ever a situation when opener should bid something else, and if so, what do other bids mean? For example, what, if anything, should 1NT-2H-2S-4NT-5C mean?

Developing a structure will add clarity to your later auctions. One important option to provide is a "tempo bid", a method to mark time to allow clarity in the next call. In my structure, after the 2D-2H (Jacoby) sequence, 2S by responder is a relay to 2NT, just for such an action. Now 3NT is quantitative and passable, and 4NT is RKCB. Of course, there are other action after the tempo bid, but that is another story. In the sequence 1NT-2D; 2H, 3NT is your basic pass or correct auction.