Adam Lea
2016-12-03 22:49:52 UTC
This hand came up at the club IMP pairs evening, opponents were a couple
of grandmasters and the best players in the room. I held the following
hand as East, no-one vulnerable:
AKT2
T9743
JT72
-
Our system was 5 card majors, 15-17NT.
N E S W
P P P 1D
2C X 4C 4S
P ?
1D promises at least 4 cards in the suit. At this point, I had a think
and came up with the following reasoning:
1. Partner has freely bid 4S opposite a double which could be as little
as 8HCP. This suggests she has a strong opening hand.
2. The opponents have bid clubs aggressively and I have a void. This
means partner is unlikely to have wasted values in clubs, therefore it
is a 30 point pack situation.
3. We have a double fit in spades and diamonds. Partner, showing at
least nine cards in this suit, and probably having two or three clubs is
also short in hearts. Therefore she has one or two hearts, if two, she
could easily have the ace. In other words, combined with my rubbish in
hearts there is no wastage in the heart suit.
I therefore decided to cue bid 5C to suggest slam interest, despite my
modest HCP. The auction proceeded:
N E S W
P P P 1D
2C X 4C 4S
P 5C P 6S
X AP
I can't remember exactly which opponent doubled, it may have been South.
The full deal was:
J875
Q8
8
KQ9543
Q964 AKT2
2 T9743
AKQ64 JT72
AT7 -
3
AKJ65
953
J862
The 4-1 spade break kills any chance of making. Partner flounded, tried
desperate measures to bring it home but ultimately went four off for
-800 (if she accepts it is going off and plays for mimimum losses she
can hold it to one off on best play). According to Deep Finesse 6D
makes. Is this a case of bad luck, poor judgement or a combination of
both? Was there a fatal flaw in my reasoning above?
Thanks
Adam
of grandmasters and the best players in the room. I held the following
hand as East, no-one vulnerable:
AKT2
T9743
JT72
-
Our system was 5 card majors, 15-17NT.
N E S W
P P P 1D
2C X 4C 4S
P ?
1D promises at least 4 cards in the suit. At this point, I had a think
and came up with the following reasoning:
1. Partner has freely bid 4S opposite a double which could be as little
as 8HCP. This suggests she has a strong opening hand.
2. The opponents have bid clubs aggressively and I have a void. This
means partner is unlikely to have wasted values in clubs, therefore it
is a 30 point pack situation.
3. We have a double fit in spades and diamonds. Partner, showing at
least nine cards in this suit, and probably having two or three clubs is
also short in hearts. Therefore she has one or two hearts, if two, she
could easily have the ace. In other words, combined with my rubbish in
hearts there is no wastage in the heart suit.
I therefore decided to cue bid 5C to suggest slam interest, despite my
modest HCP. The auction proceeded:
N E S W
P P P 1D
2C X 4C 4S
P 5C P 6S
X AP
I can't remember exactly which opponent doubled, it may have been South.
The full deal was:
J875
Q8
8
KQ9543
Q964 AKT2
2 T9743
AKQ64 JT72
AT7 -
3
AKJ65
953
J862
The 4-1 spade break kills any chance of making. Partner flounded, tried
desperate measures to bring it home but ultimately went four off for
-800 (if she accepts it is going off and plays for mimimum losses she
can hold it to one off on best play). According to Deep Finesse 6D
makes. Is this a case of bad luck, poor judgement or a combination of
both? Was there a fatal flaw in my reasoning above?
Thanks
Adam