Post by nrford100I had 87543-9-AQJ653-2, MPs, red-against-white.
Pard opened 1D, RHO bid 3H.
I don't consider Dbl a choice because it would be Negative.
How short can the 1D be? For example, if partner is playing Acol (thus
1D promises four), I'm raising to 5D (especially if the 1D bid also
denies four spades, although it wouldn't in most versions of Acol).
The only time I'd bid spades here is in a system where it's possible
that the diamonds aren't a real suit (such as Precision); even then,
I'd consider passing (was partner dealer, or were there earlier
passes?). If 4S is really our best contract with those spots, then no
game will make; and I can't see the opponents stopping below 4H unless
partner unexpectedly has length there (in which case, there's no way
partner has spades).
Exception: if 4S is a paradox bid ("pass if you have spades, pull if
you don't"), it'd fit this hand pretty well, but that's not a common
treatment as far as I know (I like it for 4-level bids following
intervention, but typically not if they're also jumps).
Incidentally, a negative double isn't terrible here if you're playing
"focused on the majors" rather than "focused on both suits" (both
treatments are common); it'd help to find a potential spade fit, and
partner would know that you wouldn't necessarily have clubs (they'd
still bid clubs if they had them but would then respect a pull to
diamonds, which is of course where you want to be if partner doesn't
have spades). Obviously, you can't play a negative double if it promises
clubs.
--
ais523