Bidding Advice

[Mark Cox]

Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.

1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

[Douglas Newlands]

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

2NT looks to be the natural rebid and 1S-2C-2N is FG, isn't it.
West needs to bid 3S now.
Isn't a 1S opener effectively 5 cards in Acol nowadays?

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

North is too weak for double. If you must bid, 3D looks safer.
North tacitly admits this when he bids 5D when 5Cx looks to be OK for
the defence. If you want out of 5D, bid 5H. This is clearly two suits
since you didn't bid 5H on the previous round.

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

Double looks normal but I guess you've saddled yourself with
double showing 4 and 1S showing 5. Now you see the downside
of that agreement. The hand looks light for 2C in a modern context
where it is stronger than it was historically. If we have enough for
game, partner will bid again so we can pass for now.

doug

[John Hall]

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

The 2NT rebid is fine, showing a balanced 15-16 in "traditional" Acol or
Benji Acol. (Some players nowadays use a different range but, assuming
you play the Weak NT, the 2NT rebid must show at least 15.) With a good
10 points, W knows the values are present for 3NT, but bids 3S (forcing)
in case E happens to have five. East duly bids 4S, a much better
contract than 3NT (or even 2NT) on these two hands.

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

The way the auction is laid out is very confusing. No, S shouldn't bid
5H. What if North's spades and hearts were reversed?! It's not clear
what redouble is in this sequence, which makes using it very risky.

I'm not sure that North's original double is a good idea. Not only is
the hand on the weak side for the bid, but if there is a diamond fit it
might be lost. I don't mind the hand having 5 diamonds, but 6 seems like
too many. For me, the choice is between 3D and Pass.

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

West doesn't have the classic NT distribution, but I'd be tempted to
open 1NT.

East doesn't have the values for 2C, and a double would imply 4 spades
(assuming you play negative doubles). But 1NT describes the hand well.
As West, with both majors stopped, I'd pass that. It's true that 1NT
will probably go down while 2C or even 3C would probably have made, but
bidding isn't an exact science.

[Adam Lea]

Post by John Hall

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

The 2NT rebid is fine, showing a balanced 15-16 in "traditional" Acol or
Benji Acol. (Some players nowadays use a different range but, assuming
you play the Weak NT, the 2NT rebid must show at least 15.) With a good
10 points, W knows the values are present for 3NT, but bids 3S (forcing)
in case E happens to have five. East duly bids 4S, a much better
contract than 3NT (or even 2NT) on these two hands.

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

The way the auction is laid out is very confusing. No, S shouldn't bid
5H. What if North's spades and hearts were reversed?! It's not clear
what redouble is in this sequence, which makes using it very risky.
I'm not sure that North's original double is a good idea. Not only is
the hand on the weak side for the bid, but if there is a diamond fit it
might be lost. I don't mind the hand having 5 diamonds, but 6 seems like
too many. For me, the choice is between 3D and Pass.

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

West doesn't have the classic NT distribution, but I'd be tempted to
open 1NT.
East doesn't have the values for 2C, and a double would imply 4 spades
(assuming you play negative doubles). But 1NT describes the hand well.
As West, with both majors stopped, I'd pass that. It's true that 1NT
will probably go down while 2C or even 3C would probably have made, but
bidding isn't an exact science.

Wouldn't it be reasonable to rebid 2C after Easts 1NT respnse? The
implication at that stage is that East holds at least four clubs and no
more than three spades, so NT may be fragile.

[Douglas Newlands]

Post by Adam Lea

Post by John Hall

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

The 2NT rebid is fine, showing a balanced 15-16 in "traditional" Acol or
Benji Acol. (Some players nowadays use a different range but, assuming
you play the Weak NT, the 2NT rebid must show at least 15.) With a good
10 points, W knows the values are present for 3NT, but bids 3S (forcing)
in case E happens to have five. East duly bids 4S, a much better
contract than 3NT (or even 2NT) on these two hands.

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

The way the auction is laid out is very confusing. No, S shouldn't bid
5H. What if North's spades and hearts were reversed?! It's not clear
what redouble is in this sequence, which makes using it very risky.
I'm not sure that North's original double is a good idea. Not only is
the hand on the weak side for the bid, but if there is a diamond fit it
might be lost. I don't mind the hand having 5 diamonds, but 6 seems like
too many. For me, the choice is between 3D and Pass.

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

West doesn't have the classic NT distribution, but I'd be tempted to
open 1NT.
East doesn't have the values for 2C, and a double would imply 4 spades
(assuming you play negative doubles). But 1NT describes the hand well.
As West, with both majors stopped, I'd pass that. It's true that 1NT
will probably go down while 2C or even 3C would probably have made, but
bidding isn't an exact science.

Wouldn't it be reasonable to rebid 2C after Easts 1NT respnse? The
implication at that stage is that East holds at least four clubs and no
more than three spades, so NT may be fragile.

A 2C response will work well because partner will be able to bid 3C
over south's 2H bid. It's just that partner will expect more and may
get overboard on other hands with the same start.
Pass isn't terrible, neither is 1NT but both will leave you in a
difficult position over 2H.

doug

[Adam Lea]

Post by Douglas Newlands

Post by Adam Lea

Post by John Hall

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

The 2NT rebid is fine, showing a balanced 15-16 in "traditional" Acol or
Benji Acol. (Some players nowadays use a different range but, assuming
you play the Weak NT, the 2NT rebid must show at least 15.) With a good
10 points, W knows the values are present for 3NT, but bids 3S (forcing)
in case E happens to have five. East duly bids 4S, a much better
contract than 3NT (or even 2NT) on these two hands.

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

The way the auction is laid out is very confusing. No, S shouldn't bid
5H. What if North's spades and hearts were reversed?! It's not clear
what redouble is in this sequence, which makes using it very risky.
I'm not sure that North's original double is a good idea. Not only is
the hand on the weak side for the bid, but if there is a diamond fit it
might be lost. I don't mind the hand having 5 diamonds, but 6 seems like
too many. For me, the choice is between 3D and Pass.

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

West doesn't have the classic NT distribution, but I'd be tempted to
open 1NT.
East doesn't have the values for 2C, and a double would imply 4 spades
(assuming you play negative doubles). But 1NT describes the hand well.
As West, with both majors stopped, I'd pass that. It's true that 1NT
will probably go down while 2C or even 3C would probably have made, but
bidding isn't an exact science.

Wouldn't it be reasonable to rebid 2C after Easts 1NT respnse? The
implication at that stage is that East holds at least four clubs and no
more than three spades, so NT may be fragile.

A 2C response will work well because partner will be able to bid 3C
over south's 2H bid. It's just that partner will expect more and may
get overboard on other hands with the same start.
Pass isn't terrible, neither is 1NT but both will leave you in a
difficult position over 2H.
doug

Why would partner expect more? 1D - 1NT - 2C as far as I'm aware doesn't
promise more than a weak opening hand (~11-16 HCP) and opener has 13HCP.

[Douglas Newlands]

Post by Adam Lea

Post by Douglas Newlands

Post by Adam Lea

Post by John Hall

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

The 2NT rebid is fine, showing a balanced 15-16 in "traditional" Acol or
Benji Acol. (Some players nowadays use a different range but, assuming
you play the Weak NT, the 2NT rebid must show at least 15.) With a good
10 points, W knows the values are present for 3NT, but bids 3S (forcing)
in case E happens to have five. East duly bids 4S, a much better
contract than 3NT (or even 2NT) on these two hands.

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

The way the auction is laid out is very confusing. No, S shouldn't bid
5H. What if North's spades and hearts were reversed?! It's not clear
what redouble is in this sequence, which makes using it very risky.
I'm not sure that North's original double is a good idea. Not only is
the hand on the weak side for the bid, but if there is a diamond fit it
might be lost. I don't mind the hand having 5 diamonds, but 6 seems like
too many. For me, the choice is between 3D and Pass.

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

West doesn't have the classic NT distribution, but I'd be tempted to
open 1NT.
East doesn't have the values for 2C, and a double would imply 4 spades
(assuming you play negative doubles). But 1NT describes the hand well.
As West, with both majors stopped, I'd pass that. It's true that 1NT
will probably go down while 2C or even 3C would probably have made, but
bidding isn't an exact science.

Wouldn't it be reasonable to rebid 2C after Easts 1NT respnse? The
implication at that stage is that East holds at least four clubs and no
more than three spades, so NT may be fragile.

A 2C response will work well because partner will be able to bid 3C
over south's 2H bid. It's just that partner will expect more and may
get overboard on other hands with the same start.
Pass isn't terrible, neither is 1NT but both will leave you in a
difficult position over 2H.

Why would partner expect more? 1D - 1NT - 2C as far as I'm aware doesn't
promise more than a weak opening hand (~11-16 HCP) and opener has 13HCP.

You have forgotten the opponents. The auction I am expecting is
1D 1H 1NT 2H
?
Now 2C isn't possible.
I know we haven't got past east's bid but it is clear that 2H is coming
when you see all 4 hands and you should expect it at the table.
For East, 1NT is reasonable and pass will probably do OK but 2C is too
much.
Without East bidding 2C, West has no action over 2H.

doug

[Adam Lea]

Post by Douglas Newlands

Post by Adam Lea

Post by Douglas Newlands

Post by Adam Lea

Post by John Hall

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

The 2NT rebid is fine, showing a balanced 15-16 in "traditional" Acol or
Benji Acol. (Some players nowadays use a different range but, assuming
you play the Weak NT, the 2NT rebid must show at least 15.) With a good
10 points, W knows the values are present for 3NT, but bids 3S (forcing)
in case E happens to have five. East duly bids 4S, a much better
contract than 3NT (or even 2NT) on these two hands.

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS =
choose 2nd suit?

The way the auction is laid out is very confusing. No, S shouldn't bid
5H. What if North's spades and hearts were reversed?! It's not clear
what redouble is in this sequence, which makes using it very risky.
I'm not sure that North's original double is a good idea. Not only is
the hand on the weak side for the bid, but if there is a diamond fit it
might be lost. I don't mind the hand having 5 diamonds, but 6 seems like
too many. For me, the choice is between 3D and Pass.

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

West doesn't have the classic NT distribution, but I'd be tempted to
open 1NT.
East doesn't have the values for 2C, and a double would imply 4 spades
(assuming you play negative doubles). But 1NT describes the hand well.
As West, with both majors stopped, I'd pass that. It's true that 1NT
will probably go down while 2C or even 3C would probably have made, but
bidding isn't an exact science.

Wouldn't it be reasonable to rebid 2C after Easts 1NT respnse? The
implication at that stage is that East holds at least four clubs and no
more than three spades, so NT may be fragile.

A 2C response will work well because partner will be able to bid 3C
over south's 2H bid. It's just that partner will expect more and may
get overboard on other hands with the same start.
Pass isn't terrible, neither is 1NT but both will leave you in a
difficult position over 2H.

Why would partner expect more? 1D - 1NT - 2C as far as I'm aware doesn't
promise more than a weak opening hand (~11-16 HCP) and opener has 13HCP.

You have forgotten the opponents. The auction I am expecting is
1D 1H 1NT 2H
?
Now 2C isn't possible.
I know we haven't got past east's bid but it is clear that 2H is coming
when you see all 4 hands and you should expect it at the table.
For East, 1NT is reasonable and pass will probably do OK but 2C is too
much.
Without East bidding 2C, West has no action over 2H.
doug

Ok I was going only on the information provided, not extrapolating
forward. I agree if 2H appears then E/W are shut out of the auction.

[John Hall]

<snip>

Post by Adam Lea

Post by John Hall

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

West doesn't have the classic NT distribution, but I'd be tempted to
open 1NT.
East doesn't have the values for 2C, and a double would imply 4 spades
(assuming you play negative doubles). But 1NT describes the hand well.
As West, with both majors stopped, I'd pass that. It's true that 1NT
will probably go down while 2C or even 3C would probably have made, but
bidding isn't an exact science.

Wouldn't it be reasonable to rebid 2C after Easts 1NT respnse? The
implication at that stage is that East holds at least four clubs and no
more than three spades, so NT may be fragile.

Rebidding 2C is a possibility. But West has a stop in both majors, and
it's Pairs scoring.

[Player]

Post by John Hall

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

The 2NT rebid is fine, showing a balanced 15-16 in "traditional" Acol or
Benji Acol. (Some players nowadays use a different range but, assuming
you play the Weak NT, the 2NT rebid must show at least 15.) With a good
10 points, W knows the values are present for 3NT, but bids 3S (forcing)
in case E happens to have five. East duly bids 4S, a much better
contract than 3NT (or even 2NT) on these two hands.

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

The way the auction is laid out is very confusing. No, S shouldn't bid
5H. What if North's spades and hearts were reversed?! It's not clear
what redouble is in this sequence, which makes using it very risky.
I'm not sure that North's original double is a good idea. Not only is
the hand on the weak side for the bid, but if there is a diamond fit it
might be lost. I don't mind the hand having 5 diamonds, but 6 seems like
too many. For me, the choice is between 3D and Pass.

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

West doesn't have the classic NT distribution, but I'd be tempted to
open 1NT.
East doesn't have the values for 2C, and a double would imply 4 spades
(assuming you play negative doubles). But 1NT describes the hand well.
As West, with both majors stopped, I'd pass that. It's true that 1NT
will probably go down while 2C or even 3C would probably have made, but
bidding isn't an exact science.
--
John Hall
"One can certainly imagine the myriad of uses
for a hand-held iguana maker"
Hobbes (the tiger, not the philosopher!)

Why play cripple bridge? Why should x show 4S? You have a 1S bid to show spades.

[Adam Lea]

Post by Player

Post by John Hall

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

The 2NT rebid is fine, showing a balanced 15-16 in "traditional" Acol or
Benji Acol. (Some players nowadays use a different range but, assuming
you play the Weak NT, the 2NT rebid must show at least 15.) With a good
10 points, W knows the values are present for 3NT, but bids 3S (forcing)
in case E happens to have five. East duly bids 4S, a much better
contract than 3NT (or even 2NT) on these two hands.

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

The way the auction is laid out is very confusing. No, S shouldn't bid
5H. What if North's spades and hearts were reversed?! It's not clear
what redouble is in this sequence, which makes using it very risky.
I'm not sure that North's original double is a good idea. Not only is
the hand on the weak side for the bid, but if there is a diamond fit it
might be lost. I don't mind the hand having 5 diamonds, but 6 seems like
too many. For me, the choice is between 3D and Pass.

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

West doesn't have the classic NT distribution, but I'd be tempted to
open 1NT.
East doesn't have the values for 2C, and a double would imply 4 spades
(assuming you play negative doubles). But 1NT describes the hand well.
As West, with both majors stopped, I'd pass that. It's true that 1NT
will probably go down while 2C or even 3C would probably have made, but
bidding isn't an exact science.
--
John Hall
"One can certainly imagine the myriad of uses
for a hand-held iguana maker"
Hobbes (the tiger, not the philosopher!)

Why play cripple bridge? Why should x show 4S? You have a 1S bid to show spades.

It is useful to know how many spades responder has in a competitive
auction in order for opener to judge how good the fit is and how high to
compete. If the opponents are kind enough to give you an extra bid to
show your hand, why not use it?

[Player]

Adam certain hands become unbiddable. To play x= 4s exactly and 1d = 5s is wasteful. It is a US idea based on weak bidders playing too much match points.

Consider pd opens 1d (1h) and you hold
Kxx xx xxx axxxx. 1nt is out. 2d is sort of ok but a x shows minor suit values and usually 5c.
If you play support xs you lose litte. Consider
1d (1h) 1s (2h)
X = support, 3 card support. 2s = 4 card support.
Even better is to play x as 4+s and 1s as the -ve x type hand.

[Lorne Anderson]

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

W should bid 3S showing 3 trumps. E should raise to 4S if they have 5
else bid 3N.

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

N took a huge risk removing the double - he has 2 aces and partner is
promising some values. 5D says you think you are making 11 tricks and
you clearly do not have a hand that can think that opposite an average
double.

XX says please remove to you better major.

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

I would pass and hope for the best. A lot of the time partner will bid
again or double.

1N is likely to wrong side the contract if partner has the Q, and you
are not strong enough for 2C unless you have agreed it is weak. X
proposes a 4-3 spade contract which may be best if you do not want to
risk a pass but will work badly if partner also thinks a 4-3 fit is best
as you now play in a 3-3 fit !

[Player]

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

1S 2C
2N 3S is obvious. After 2NT you are in a game force.

Sth did not have a double.

You play wnt do you not? Why did west not open 1NT? This is especially valid holding both minors. Don't play weak no trump if you don't open these hands 1NT

[Ronald]

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

2N is pefectly okay, W should bid 3S over 2N

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

S should bid 5H, XX is to play

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!

Easy for me because I play X denies 4crd S as well as H-Stopper. If X
promises 4crd S, you have to be aware that 1N doesn't promise a H-stopper.

[Steve Willner]

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.

Vul is relevant on deal 3.

Post by Mark Cox
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?

I'm with everyone else here. This should not be a difficult problem.

Post by Mark Cox
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?

I appreciate the value of intervening over preempts when short in their
suit, but you have to draw the line somewhere. The North hand looks to
me well below the line, so I'd pass over 3C. If you think it's strong
enough to intervene, I like double a lot better than 3D.

South's responsive double is clear, and I think North's 5D is also
clear. In my world, South's redouble is to play unless you have a
specific agreement otherwise. South should bid 4H, which must show both
majors after the initial responsive double.

The root of this problem, though, is North's initial intervention with
inadequate values.

Post by Mark Cox
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

When I played Acol, East's hand would have been strong enough for 2C. I
gather that's no longer true for most partnerships. Double is possible
if it doesn't promise spade length, but it probably does for most pairs.
That leaves 1NT, which would probably be my choice in most conditions,
or pass, which I'd probably choose at amber. A lot depends on the
opponents and the field one is playing in. 1NT describes the strength
and shape, but it quite likely wrong-sides the contract.

Whether West should open 1D or 1NT depends on vulnerability. I would
certainly open 1D at amber and 1NT at white. At other conditions, it
depends on opponents and the field.

[s***@gmail.com]

Post by Mark Cox
Pairs, Benj. Acol. Vulnerability irrelevant.
1) W) Q94 - T9 -J82 - AQJ64 E) AKxxx - KQ8 - 64 - K82
E Dealer: Opens 1S P 2C P 2NT P ???
a) Should have E rebid 3H instead of 2NT? Should W bid 3H or 3NT over 2NT?
2) N) 964 - A876 - AJ9432 - void. S) KQJ7- KQ95 - 87 - T73
West opens 3C ( weak) North X, 5C, X, P 5D, X, XX, all pass.
a) Should S bid 5H 1st bid, b) is redouble to play or SOS = choose 2nd suit?
3) W) A9- KJ - AT964 - J974 E) 643- A82 - 72 - AT865.
West opens 1D, North 1H, East ?? X, or 1NT or 2C ?? or what!
Thanks - 3 problems in 6 boards.

1. Why would you not want to support Spades over 2NT?
2. North should be passing 3C, bidding DBL is strange.
3. West has a clear 1NT. If your opening 1NT is 11-14 or so, I would have opened the West hand 1NT.