Discussion:
is 1NT-2H; 2S-3S; 3NT a decision or a suggestion?
(too old to reply)
dfm
2017-10-08 19:11:37 UTC
Permalink
We had this unopposed auction yesterday at matchpoints:

1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT

3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what looked like good stoppers in the other three suits

A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53

so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.

1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand

QJ9542
AQ2
96
76

and why or why not?
Con Reeder, unhyphenated American
2017-10-08 20:20:54 UTC
Permalink
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
Not without better diamond spots, in my opinion.
Post by dfm
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or a suggestion to partner?
Suggestion.
Post by dfm
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
Yes. Because the proper bid is 4S, not 3S, and I want to correct. (This is
assuming a 15-17 NT, which I presume is the case as opener has 17.)
--
Life isn't fair, but it's good. -- Regina Brett
Co Wiersma
2017-10-08 22:07:31 UTC
Permalink
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
1 : yes
2 : It is surely not a final decision.
It cannot be as partner did not promise a hand suited for NT
3 : prolly yes

Co Wiersma
smn
2017-10-08 22:54:08 UTC
Permalink
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
1.yes,2. a suggestion 3.No problem with pulling to 4 spades with 2 small doubleton ,good chance one of the doubleton is his 3 card suit as here .But nothing is certain . Your showing 8 or 9 hcp so if he has a suitable 16 he should give you an option ,9 tricks might be easier then 10 . Would partner bid 3n with 4-3-3-3 ? I wouldn't with 9 trump but what do I know . smn
Lorne
2017-10-09 12:14:03 UTC
Permalink
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
Look like a clear 4S rebid to me, so I checked it with a sim and found
4S making 68% of the time opposite a balanced 15 count so you clearly
can't afford partner to pass 3S.

With regard to your questions:
1. Looks reasonable to me.
2. Can only be a suggestion. Partner may be even less suitable for 3N
that this hand.
3. I would pull - 2 small doubletons too much for me to try 3N. Sim
also showed 4S as a clear winner over 3N.
Barry Margolin
2017-10-09 16:06:05 UTC
Permalink
Post by Lorne
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a
known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what
looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as
in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or
a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
Look like a clear 4S rebid to me, so I checked it with a sim and found
4S making 68% of the time opposite a balanced 15 count so you clearly
can't afford partner to pass 3S.
In that case it should be a Texas transfer. Jacoby followed by a jump to
4 is a mild slam try if you're playing Texas transfers.
--
Barry Margolin
Arlington, MA
judyorcarl@verizon.net
2017-10-10 14:35:53 UTC
Permalink
Post by Barry Margolin
Post by Lorne
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a
known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what
looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as
in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or
a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
Look like a clear 4S rebid to me, so I checked it with a sim and found
4S making 68% of the time opposite a balanced 15 count so you clearly
can't afford partner to pass 3S.
In that case it should be a Texas transfer. Jacoby followed by a jump to
4 is a mild slam try if you're playing Texas transfers.
--
Barry Margolin
Arlington, MA
It has always seemed to me that the "mild slam try" business was a matter of "no idle bids allowed."

To quote a long-ago imaginary dialogue between Marshall Miles and Eddie Kantar. "It's OK to have some idle bids. For example, we've never assigned a meaning to the auction 1D -1NT ; 7S."

Carl
John Kruiniger
2017-10-11 05:44:39 UTC
Permalink
I do always try to stay low when I'm 4332, because I am then certain to
make a trick less than anyone else.

JK
Post by ***@verizon.net
Post by Barry Margolin
Post by Lorne
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a
known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what
looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as
in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or
a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
Look like a clear 4S rebid to me, so I checked it with a sim and found
4S making 68% of the time opposite a balanced 15 count so you clearly
can't afford partner to pass 3S.
In that case it should be a Texas transfer. Jacoby followed by a jump to
4 is a mild slam try if you're playing Texas transfers.
--
Barry Margolin
Arlington, MA
It has always seemed to me that the "mild slam try" business was a matter of "no idle bids allowed."
To quote a long-ago imaginary dialogue between Marshall Miles and Eddie Kantar. "It's OK to have some idle bids. For example, we've never assigned a meaning to the auction 1D -1NT ; 7S."
Carl
p***@infi.net
2017-10-15 23:48:31 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@verizon.net
Post by Barry Margolin
Post by Lorne
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a
known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what
looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as
in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or
a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
Look like a clear 4S rebid to me, so I checked it with a sim and found
4S making 68% of the time opposite a balanced 15 count so you clearly
can't afford partner to pass 3S.
In that case it should be a Texas transfer. Jacoby followed by a jump to
4 is a mild slam try if you're playing Texas transfers.
--
Barry Margolin
Arlington, MA
It has always seemed to me that the "mild slam try" business was a matter of "no idle bids allowed."
To quote a long-ago imaginary dialogue between Marshall Miles and Eddie Kantar. "It's OK to have some idle bids. For example, we've never assigned a meaning to the auction 1D -1NT ; 7S."
Carl
I just figure that, if nothing else, responder might have proceeded toward slam if opener had super-accepted.
Fred.
2017-10-20 17:23:11 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@verizon.net
Post by Barry Margolin
Post by Lorne
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a
known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what
looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as
in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or
a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
Look like a clear 4S rebid to me, so I checked it with a sim and found
4S making 68% of the time opposite a balanced 15 count so you clearly
can't afford partner to pass 3S.
In that case it should be a Texas transfer. Jacoby followed by a jump to
4 is a mild slam try if you're playing Texas transfers.
--
Barry Margolin
Arlington, MA
It has always seemed to me that the "mild slam try" business was a matter of "no idle bids allowed."
To quote a long-ago imaginary dialogue between Marshall Miles and Eddie Kantar. "It's OK to have some idle bids. For example, we've never assigned a meaning to the auction 1D -1NT ; 7S."
Carl
It's not idle bids, but logic of the auction. When
responder goes directly to the 4-level and signs off
in a major it says "nothing you could say would
interest me in slam". When responder makes a lower
level forcing bid and then bids to 4M without support
the implication is that without some sort of slam
interest responder would have bid directly.

It's a little clearer without transfers. For instance:

1NT 3H
3NT 4H

says responder was hoping for a cue bid if responder
had 3-card support and good controls. Otherwise,
responder would have bid 4H directly. Opener with extra,
good 2-card support, and good controls can go ahead and
cue bid at the 5-level.

Fred.
judyorcarl@verizon.net
2017-10-22 16:19:33 UTC
Permalink
Post by Fred.
Post by ***@verizon.net
Post by Barry Margolin
Post by Lorne
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a
known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what
looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as
in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or
a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
Look like a clear 4S rebid to me, so I checked it with a sim and found
4S making 68% of the time opposite a balanced 15 count so you clearly
can't afford partner to pass 3S.
In that case it should be a Texas transfer. Jacoby followed by a jump to
4 is a mild slam try if you're playing Texas transfers.
--
Barry Margolin
Arlington, MA
It has always seemed to me that the "mild slam try" business was a matter of "no idle bids allowed."
To quote a long-ago imaginary dialogue between Marshall Miles and Eddie Kantar. "It's OK to have some idle bids. For example, we've never assigned a meaning to the auction 1D -1NT ; 7S."
Carl
It's not idle bids, but logic of the auction. When
responder goes directly to the 4-level and signs off
in a major it says "nothing you could say would
interest me in slam". When responder makes a lower
level forcing bid and then bids to 4M without support
the implication is that without some sort of slam
interest responder would have bid directly.
1NT 3H
3NT 4H
says responder was hoping for a cue bid if responder
had 3-card support and good controls. Otherwise,
responder would have bid 4H directly. Opener with extra,
good 2-card support, and good controls can go ahead and
cue bid at the 5-level.
Fred.
Yes on the non-transfer auction.

But what hand expects to make four of a major more than 50% of the time facing ANY possible notrump opening but is sure to make 6 less than 50% of the time facing a perfectly constructed notrump opening?

There is a huge gap between a horribly fitting 15 and a perfectly fitting 17.

Carl
Fred.
2017-10-23 14:15:28 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@verizon.net
Post by Fred.
Post by ***@verizon.net
Post by Barry Margolin
Post by Lorne
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a
known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what
looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as
in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or
a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
Look like a clear 4S rebid to me, so I checked it with a sim and found
4S making 68% of the time opposite a balanced 15 count so you clearly
can't afford partner to pass 3S.
In that case it should be a Texas transfer. Jacoby followed by a jump to
4 is a mild slam try if you're playing Texas transfers.
--
Barry Margolin
Arlington, MA
It has always seemed to me that the "mild slam try" business was a matter of "no idle bids allowed."
To quote a long-ago imaginary dialogue between Marshall Miles and Eddie Kantar. "It's OK to have some idle bids. For example, we've never assigned a meaning to the auction 1D -1NT ; 7S."
Carl
It's not idle bids, but logic of the auction. When
responder goes directly to the 4-level and signs off
in a major it says "nothing you could say would
interest me in slam". When responder makes a lower
level forcing bid and then bids to 4M without support
the implication is that without some sort of slam
interest responder would have bid directly.
1NT 3H
3NT 4H
says responder was hoping for a cue bid if responder
had 3-card support and good controls. Otherwise,
responder would have bid 4H directly. Opener with extra,
good 2-card support, and good controls can go ahead and
cue bid at the 5-level.
Fred.
Yes on the non-transfer auction.
But what hand expects to make four of a major more than 50% of the time facing ANY possible notrump opening but is sure to make 6 less than 50% of the time facing a perfectly constructed notrump opening?
There is a huge gap between a horribly fitting 15 and a perfectly fitting 17.
Carl
What you seem to be claiming is that no-one should use Texas
transfers. When I transfer to 4M I expect partner to make 50+% of
the time but with some openings the contract may be hopeless and with
some there may be a good play for slam. I simply see no chance of
identifying those hands where slam is likely, or those hands where
game is hopeless. So, why give the opponents a low level transfer to
work with? No bidding methods are going to find all the decent slams.

If I transfer first and then push directly to game I've indicated that
some available super accept could have lead us to a reasonable slam.
Opener holding all of the super accept but the trump length can make a move.

The inference isn't useful often enough to justify a bidding system design,
but since it is there I might as well use it when it comes up.

Fred.
judyorcarl@verizon.net
2017-10-24 00:48:27 UTC
Permalink
Post by Fred.
Post by ***@verizon.net
Post by Fred.
Post by ***@verizon.net
Post by Barry Margolin
Post by Lorne
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a
known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what
looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as
in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or
a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
Look like a clear 4S rebid to me, so I checked it with a sim and found
4S making 68% of the time opposite a balanced 15 count so you clearly
can't afford partner to pass 3S.
In that case it should be a Texas transfer. Jacoby followed by a jump to
4 is a mild slam try if you're playing Texas transfers.
--
Barry Margolin
Arlington, MA
It has always seemed to me that the "mild slam try" business was a matter of "no idle bids allowed."
To quote a long-ago imaginary dialogue between Marshall Miles and Eddie Kantar. "It's OK to have some idle bids. For example, we've never assigned a meaning to the auction 1D -1NT ; 7S."
Carl
It's not idle bids, but logic of the auction. When
responder goes directly to the 4-level and signs off
in a major it says "nothing you could say would
interest me in slam". When responder makes a lower
level forcing bid and then bids to 4M without support
the implication is that without some sort of slam
interest responder would have bid directly.
1NT 3H
3NT 4H
says responder was hoping for a cue bid if responder
had 3-card support and good controls. Otherwise,
responder would have bid 4H directly. Opener with extra,
good 2-card support, and good controls can go ahead and
cue bid at the 5-level.
Fred.
Yes on the non-transfer auction.
But what hand expects to make four of a major more than 50% of the time facing ANY possible notrump opening but is sure to make 6 less than 50% of the time facing a perfectly constructed notrump opening?
There is a huge gap between a horribly fitting 15 and a perfectly fitting 17.
Carl
What you seem to be claiming is that no-one should use Texas
transfers. When I transfer to 4M I expect partner to make 50+% of
the time but with some openings the contract may be hopeless and with
some there may be a good play for slam. I simply see no chance of
identifying those hands where slam is likely, or those hands where
game is hopeless. So, why give the opponents a low level transfer to
work with? No bidding methods are going to find all the decent slams.
If I transfer first and then push directly to game I've indicated that
some available super accept could have lead us to a reasonable slam.
Opener holding all of the super accept but the trump length can make a move.
The inference isn't useful often enough to justify a bidding system design,
but since it is there I might as well use it when it comes up.
Fred.
Your last paragraph sounds to me like "It's an idle bid, so let's assign that meaning to it."

Carl
Fred.
2017-10-24 13:13:14 UTC
Permalink
Post by ***@verizon.net
Post by Fred.
Post by ***@verizon.net
Post by Fred.
Post by ***@verizon.net
Post by Barry Margolin
Post by Lorne
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a
known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what
looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as
in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or
a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
Look like a clear 4S rebid to me, so I checked it with a sim and found
4S making 68% of the time opposite a balanced 15 count so you clearly
can't afford partner to pass 3S.
In that case it should be a Texas transfer. Jacoby followed by a jump to
4 is a mild slam try if you're playing Texas transfers.
--
Barry Margolin
Arlington, MA
It has always seemed to me that the "mild slam try" business was a matter of "no idle bids allowed."
To quote a long-ago imaginary dialogue between Marshall Miles and Eddie Kantar. "It's OK to have some idle bids. For example, we've never assigned a meaning to the auction 1D -1NT ; 7S."
Carl
It's not idle bids, but logic of the auction. When
responder goes directly to the 4-level and signs off
in a major it says "nothing you could say would
interest me in slam". When responder makes a lower
level forcing bid and then bids to 4M without support
the implication is that without some sort of slam
interest responder would have bid directly.
1NT 3H
3NT 4H
says responder was hoping for a cue bid if responder
had 3-card support and good controls. Otherwise,
responder would have bid 4H directly. Opener with extra,
good 2-card support, and good controls can go ahead and
cue bid at the 5-level.
Fred.
Yes on the non-transfer auction.
But what hand expects to make four of a major more than 50% of the time facing ANY possible notrump opening but is sure to make 6 less than 50% of the time facing a perfectly constructed notrump opening?
There is a huge gap between a horribly fitting 15 and a perfectly fitting 17.
Carl
What you seem to be claiming is that no-one should use Texas
transfers. When I transfer to 4M I expect partner to make 50+% of
the time but with some openings the contract may be hopeless and with
some there may be a good play for slam. I simply see no chance of
identifying those hands where slam is likely, or those hands where
game is hopeless. So, why give the opponents a low level transfer to
work with? No bidding methods are going to find all the decent slams.
If I transfer first and then push directly to game I've indicated that
some available super accept could have lead us to a reasonable slam.
Opener holding all of the super accept but the trump length can make a move.
The inference isn't useful often enough to justify a bidding system design,
but since it is there I might as well use it when it comes up.
Fred.
Your last paragraph sounds to me like "It's an idle bid, so let's assign that meaning to it."
Carl
Assuming Texas transfers, responder still has reason
to use the sequence

1NT 2D(H)
2H(S) 4H(S)

even if opener will not make the inference. This is
specifically the case where responder can bid slam if
opener has the values for a super accept but not if
opener denies those values. Which bid, then, is idle?
Discussing the inference clarifies a sequence which
a capable responder will use in any case.

Fred.
Douglas Newlands
2017-10-24 23:47:23 UTC
Permalink
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
The 3S bid is invitational where I live.
The hand shown below wants to reach game.
Post by dfm
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
I find the logic uncompelling and I suspect most of the 3NT rather than
4M camp only know after the fact.
Personally, I play in the major when we have 8+cards and don't waste my
brain.
It's different tho, if they have been in the auction and we have some
idea what the lead is going to be.

doug
Post by dfm
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
judyorcarl@verizon.net
2017-10-27 19:32:12 UTC
Permalink
Post by Douglas Newlands
Post by dfm
1NT 2H(transfer)
2S 3S
3NT
The 3S bid is invitational where I live.
The hand shown below wants to reach game.
Post by dfm
3S promised six spades, and we don't open 1NT with a singleton, so we had a known 8-card spade fit. But opener was 4332 with a doubleton spade and what looked like good stoppers in the other three suits
A10
K1084
AJ2
KQ53
so he thought he might be getting the same number of tricks in notrump as in spades. He decided to try for the extra 10 points in 3NT rather than 4S.
1. Was this logic sensible?
2. If so, should opener's 3NT bid in this sequence be a final decision, or a suggestion to partner?
3. If it's a suggestion, would you pull it to 4S with this hand
I find the logic uncompelling and I suspect most of the 3NT rather than
4M camp only know after the fact.
Personally, I play in the major when we have 8+cards and don't waste my
brain.
It's different tho, if they have been in the auction and we have some
idea what the lead is going to be.
doug
Post by dfm
QJ9542
AQ2
96
76
and why or why not?
You also get to avoid wasting your brain in the play when they cash the 1st 4 tricks with ruffs.

Carl

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