What to do?

Post by nrford100
Had a bunch of hard-to-bid hands yesterday;
MPs, Playing 2/1, Bidding show is just N-S.
1.
North: KQJT2-842-K-A976
South: -AKQT5-AQ8753-Q3
Bidding: N: 1S-2D, 3C-3H, 3NT-??
Naturally I was interested in slam, but with a void and a worthless doubleton, Gerber doesn't help if North has 1 ace and I just don't see any way to ask for the club help.
2.
North had 973-K632-K9-AK53. West opened 1D. North didn't TOX because of having only 3 spades. I thought it was okay to TOX with a 3-card suit, but is this one too bad?
3.
Playing new minor forcing.
North: Q732-J862-T65-Q9
South: -AT94-A984-AK762
Bidding: S:1C-1H, 2D-P
I can sympathize with N's passing my forcing bid. What else can she bid?
I was bidding out my points and shape, planning to bid H next.
Maybe I should bid 3H instead of 2D?
4.
N: KQ92-KJ952-K-A65
S: 74-A86-AJ652-JT4
Bidding: S:P-1H, 2D-3NT
Everyone else was in hearts and we got 33%.
I thought that 3H (instead of 2D) would be a 4-card limit raise.
I have 11 points in support of hearts, so I hated to just bid 2H.
A reverse by N is an overbid and 2NT seems like an underbid.
...help...

1. I'd just bid out my patter with 4H. This should
show a very good hand since you are forcing a possible
preference at the 5-level. Maybe opener will squeeze
out 5C. If not, slam is not a sure thing, and you will
at least be playing the right strain.

2. I'd double vulnerable or not at match points, but I
understand the pass. It is a minimum semi-balanced hand.

3. This hand counts 20 dummy points in hearts with good
controls. I'd splinter 3S and partner would discourage
with 4H.

4. I'd use forcing no-trump here for my 3-card semi-
balanced limit raise.

pass 1H
1NT ?

Responder plans to rebid 3H after 2m or 2H, 4H
after 2S or 2NT. If opener's hand is shabby
enough to pass a forcing NT from a passed hand
1NT may be a decent spot.

Fred.

f***@gmail.com

2019-01-12 04:19:31 UTC

Just pass. Maybe u could have say 2H to give the information "5 cards" but that is an other story

X on 1S just pass

2D is just no 4S or 4H
2H is normal

Why 3H ? Just 2H

Co Wiersma

2019-01-12 13:50:53 UTC

1 : Surely in 2/1 there must be a way for opener to show minimum ?
Probably 2S
In that case the bidding would go like 1S-2D-2S-3H

As the bidding went in ways I do not understand I would bid 6NT and hope
for the best

2 : Bridge is a bidding game
If you wait for the perfect hand to bid, you will loose much more than
you gain
This is a takeout double in every game and every position and every vuln

3 : I do not understand your convention
Do you mean abc convention?
AFAIK new minor forcing is a bid by the answering hand
So 1C-1H; 1NT-2D would be nmf

In a simple bidding system 1C-1H; 2D is a reverse bid
And 100% forcing
your partner should have passed 1C
You could have bid 3H or 4H or even 3S if you play splinters

4 : Well you could have bid 4H at the end, partner did show a 5 card
heart suit, no?

Most important is that if you do not like the bidding system that you
agreed on with your partner
then try to change it
but do not change it at the table

I suppose you play that 1H-2H is 8-11 points?
nothing wrong with that

Where I live (in The Netherlands) it is more common for advanced players
to play 1H-2NT is 11points with 3 Hearts
some play 1H-2NT is 11point or 16+ points (where 1H-3NT show 12-15)
Expert players have a meaning for 2NT, 3C and for 3D all showing heart
support

Co Wiersma

Fred.

2019-01-12 15:31:58 UTC

BTW, hand 3 shows that you have to flesh out your agreement
on the forcing 2D to include what responder bids with a bad
hand. I've seen lots of partnerships assign a constructive
meaning to all the forced rebids and leave the hand with
nothing constructive to say without a bid.

Fred.

Hotzenplotz

2019-01-13 01:06:56 UTC

Post by nrford100
Had a bunch of hard-to-bid hands yesterday;
MPs, Playing 2/1, Bidding show is just N-S.
1.
North: KQJT2-842-K-A976
South: void AKQT5-AQ8753-Q3
Bidding: N: 1S-2D, 3C-3H, 3NT-??

The 3C bid is poor; opener should bid 2S to show a minimum. The failure to show a min is a major failing by many 2/1 players
1S 2D
2S 3H
3NT 4H
probably all pass is an auction. Personally I would prefer to bid 2H over 1S and might well get to 6H

Post by nrford100
2.
North had 973-K632-K9-AK53. West opened 1D. North didn't TOX because of having only 3 spades. I thought it was okay to TOX with a 3-card suit, but is this one too bad?

Take out x is obvious. You do not need 4-4 in the Majors

Post by nrford100
3.
Playing new minor forcing.
North: Q732-J862-T65-Q9
South: -AT94-A984-AK762
Bidding: S:1C-1H, 2D-P
I can sympathize with N's passing my forcing bid. What else can she bid?
I was bidding out my points and shape, planning to bid H next.
Maybe I should bid 3H instead of 2D?

Your pd cannot pass 2D. However
1C 1H
3S
is a far better auction. Why are you futzing about? You ask "what can she bid?" A blackout bid of 2S or 2NT, whichever is played by your partnership is obvious.

Post by nrford100
4.
N: KQ92-KJ952-K-A65
S: 74-A86-AJ652-JT4
Bidding: S:P-1H, 2D-3NT
Everyone else was in hearts and we got 33%.
I thought that 3H (instead of 2D) would be a 4-card limit raise.
I have 11 points in support of hearts, so I hated to just bid 2H.
A reverse by N is an overbid and 2NT seems like an underbid.
...help...

3NT is the bid of a butcher! You are not really worth 2D in 2/1, but 3NT is pathetic. Pd should bid 2S

judyorcarl@verizon.net

2019-01-13 14:29:36 UTC

Post by Hotzenplotz

Post by nrford100
Had a bunch of hard-to-bid hands yesterday;
MPs, Playing 2/1, Bidding show is just N-S.
1.
North: KQJT2-842-K-A976
South: void AKQT5-AQ8753-Q3
Bidding: N: 1S-2D, 3C-3H, 3NT-??

Post by nrford100
2.
North had 973-K632-K9-AK53. West opened 1D. North didn't TOX because of having only 3 spades. I thought it was okay to TOX with a 3-card suit, but is this one too bad?

Take out x is obvious. You do not need 4-4 in the Majors

3NT is the bid of a butcher! You are not really worth 2D in 2/1, but 3NT is pathetic. Pd should bid 2S

Do you actually play that 1S - 2D ; 2S *shows* a minimum. My observation of 2/1 players is that it says "i won't describe my hand further until you describe yours further. nyah nyah nyah."

Carl

Fred.

2019-01-13 17:19:00 UTC

Post by Hotzenplotz

Post by nrford100
Had a bunch of hard-to-bid hands yesterday;
MPs, Playing 2/1, Bidding show is just N-S.
1.
North: KQJT2-842-K-A976
South: void AKQT5-AQ8753-Q3
Bidding: N: 1S-2D, 3C-3H, 3NT-??

Post by nrford100
2.
North had 973-K632-K9-AK53. West opened 1D. North didn't TOX because of having only 3 spades. I thought it was okay to TOX with a 3-card suit, but is this one too bad?

Take out x is obvious. You do not need 4-4 in the Majors

3NT is the bid of a butcher! You are not really worth 2D in 2/1, but 3NT is pathetic. Pd should bid 2S

Do you actually play that 1S - 2D ; 2S *shows* a minimum. My observation of 2/1 players is that it says "i won't describe my hand further until you describe yours further. nyah nyah nyah."
Carl

A waiting bid. Must be made if holding a minimum.
Usually is a minimum. Responder assumes a minimum
until opener clearly shows otherwise.

Fred.

judyorcarl@verizon.net

2019-01-13 21:08:54 UTC

Post by Fred.

Post by Hotzenplotz

Post by nrford100
Had a bunch of hard-to-bid hands yesterday;
MPs, Playing 2/1, Bidding show is just N-S.
1.
North: KQJT2-842-K-A976
South: void AKQT5-AQ8753-Q3
Bidding: N: 1S-2D, 3C-3H, 3NT-??

Post by nrford100
2.
North had 973-K632-K9-AK53. West opened 1D. North didn't TOX because of having only 3 spades. I thought it was okay to TOX with a 3-card suit, but is this one too bad?

Take out x is obvious. You do not need 4-4 in the Majors

3NT is the bid of a butcher! You are not really worth 2D in 2/1, but 3NT is pathetic. Pd should bid 2S

Do you actually play that 1S - 2D ; 2S *shows* a minimum. My observation of 2/1 players is that it says "i won't describe my hand further until you describe yours further. nyah nyah nyah."
Carl

A waiting bid. Must be made if holding a minimum.
Usually is a minimum. Responder assumes a minimum
until opener clearly shows otherwise.
Fred.

that was 1950's Goren and K-S.

What evidence that that is consensus 2/1 now?

Or evidence that there is a 2/1 consensus?

Carl

Hotzenplotz

2019-01-14 00:26:00 UTC

snipped

Post by ***@verizon.net
Do you actually play that 1S - 2D ; 2S *shows* a minimum. My observation of 2/1 players is that it says "i won't describe my hand further until you describe yours further. nyah nyah nyah."
Carl

Yes we do Carl. We play that a 2NT bid shows extra values, for example a hand with 16-18 bal and a 5 card M, so a bit too good to open 1NT. 2M is the default rebid with a minimum hand, even if a we have a weak 5/5. We feel it is essential to show the range rather than to adopt the weasel convention that so many 2/1 players use.

d***@gmail.com

2019-01-13 15:04:47 UTC

2D by a passed hand is certainly reasonable in 2 over 1. Had South not originally passed, then 2D would be a violation of 2 over 1 principles.

judyorcarl@verizon.net

2019-01-13 16:34:25 UTC

Post by d***@gmail.com

2D by a passed hand is certainly reasonable in 2 over 1. Had South not originally passed, then 2D would be a violation of 2 over 1 principles.

principles???

it is an overbid in my judgment and, apparently, yours.

but an ethical failing???? i think not.

Carl

Travis Crump

2019-01-13 21:11:39 UTC

Since no one seems to have mentioned it yet, most 2/1 players play some
version of drury. Most commonly where 2C shows a limit raise. Further
since a good limit raise will frequently have opened, you can be a
little more generous on the lower range. Even how your auction went
however you should just correct to 4H. 3N is just a (mis)description of
opener's hand; it doesn't end the auction. You should pretty much only
consider passing 3N with concealed 3-card support when you are 4333.

Travis

Hotzenplotz

2019-01-14 01:11:48 UTC

Post by Travis Crump

Travis, another possibility is to use a jump to 3m here by the passed hand to show a fit with opener and a decent 5 card suit. On this particular hand though, neither the D suit, nor the H support is really good enough to do this.

Mick Heins

2019-01-14 13:56:57 UTC

This one is hard, but you might treat it as 5-5 in matchpoints. That would help.

Post by nrford100
2.
North had 973-K632-K9-AK53. West opened 1D. North didn't TOX because
of having only 3 spades. I thought it was okay to TOX with a 3-card
suit, but is this one too bad?

Clear takeout double.

You should raise hearts.

Don't you play Drury?

--
Mickey

Experience is what allows you to recognize a mistake the second time you
make it. -- unknown

KWSchneider

2019-01-14 17:22:34 UTC

Hand 1: Responder did not have a good plan. I would never consider a 2D bid with five hearts. How was responder ever going to show five hearts below 4H?
Must respond 2H.

KWSchneider

2019-01-14 17:25:35 UTC

Post by nrford100
2.
North had 973-K632-K9-AK53. West opened 1D. North didn't TOX because of having only 3 spades. I thought it was okay to TOX with a 3-card suit, but is this one too bad?

Hand 2: Assuming a standard 14-17 range in direct seat, this is a 1N overcall upgrade because of the controls and the desire to have the lead up to the hand. While X is an acceptable option, the ugliness of the spades is a real negative.

Hotzenplotz

2019-01-15 00:21:58 UTC

On Tuesday, 15 January 2019 00:25:36 UTC+7, KWSchneider wrote:

snipped

Post by KWSchneider
Hand 2: Assuming a standard 14-17 range in direct seat, this is a 1N overcall upgrade because of the controls and the desire to have the lead up to the hand. While X is an acceptable option, the ugliness of the spades is a real negative.

I agree with most of your other comments, Kurt, but this one is way off beam. Firstly most play 1NT as 15-18; secondly this is nothing like a 1NT overcall. Where is your source of tricks? You have a 13 count and no pips at all. 1NT is a dreadful bid.

KWSchneider

2019-01-15 14:45:25 UTC

Post by Hotzenplotz
snipped

I play the same range for an overcall as our 1N opener (ONLY if I'm playing strong NT) which is a good 14 to 17. Even if I'm playing 15-18, my argument (see below) holds water...

Yes, my pips are not great, but as you know, the Kings and Ace carry more weight in notrump, and MUCH more so on defense. But more importantly (because poster did not give vulnerability), I'm making a tactical bid (assuming NV vs V). In this case, I'm tossing in a slightly pre-emptive bid that will force responder to choose between a penalty double, pass, or a 2-level bid. If responder doubles (and opener accedes), I will pass, expecting to make 4 tricks on my hand alone for -500, while they are scoring at least 600 in their 3N contract. Also, in situations like this with competing notrump hands, the lead COSTS a trick (for example, if clubs break 4-2 with opponents having the J and Q, or T9 and Q.

While it is possible that responder has the necessary 10HCP (and balanced shape) to double, it is more likely that my bid has thrown a monkey wrench into his 1S response. More importantly, I'm trying to buy the contract at 1N from my side undoubled - or defend a 2-level contract at least. I do not want to defend 1N - what do you do after (1D) X (1N) P (P)? Lead your small club and hope for a 33 split? (see above - could cost)

Yes, my partner will expect a Q more but also will know that I deny 44 in the majors (else X for sure). But s/he will ABSOLUTELY get the expected defense from me - and 95% of the expected offense, since my HIGH honors are sitting nicely behind opener's.

My entire point for the 1N overcall is that there are tactical reasons for making bids sometimes, and IF we are WHITE, this qualifies as a tactical bid.

Co Wiersma

2019-01-15 15:54:54 UTC

Post by Hotzenplotz
snipped

I play the same range for an overcall as our 1N opener (ONLY if I'm playing strong NT) which is a good 14 to 17. Even if I'm playing 15-18, my argument (see below) holds water...
Yes, my pips are not great, but as you know, the Kings and Ace carry more weight in notrump, and MUCH more so on defense. But more importantly (because poster did not give vulnerability), I'm making a tactical bid (assuming NV vs V). In this case, I'm tossing in a slightly pre-emptive bid that will force responder to choose between a penalty double, pass, or a 2-level bid. If responder doubles (and opener accedes), I will pass, expecting to make 4 tricks on my hand alone for -500, while they are scoring at least 600 in their 3N contract. Also, in situations like this with competing notrump hands, the lead COSTS a trick (for example, if clubs break 4-2 with opponents having the J and Q, or T9 and Q.
While it is possible that responder has the necessary 10HCP (and balanced shape) to double, it is more likely that my bid has thrown a monkey wrench into his 1S response. More importantly, I'm trying to buy the contract at 1N from my side undoubled - or defend a 2-level contract at least. I do not want to defend 1N - what do you do after (1D) X (1N) P (P)? Lead your small club and hope for a 33 split? (see above - could cost)
Yes, my partner will expect a Q more but also will know that I deny 44 in the majors (else X for sure). But s/he will ABSOLUTELY get the expected defense from me - and 95% of the expected offense, since my HIGH honors are sitting nicely behind opener's.
My entire point for the 1N overcall is that there are tactical reasons for making bids sometimes, and IF we are WHITE, this qualifies as a tactical bid.

But you still have only 13 points
You can argue that its a good 13 but then its still a good 13
And nowhere near a good 14
But bidding 1NT will often get you to play and you have only very few
tricks even if both kings be well placed
Down two doubled is a bad score in any vulnerability

Co Wiersma

KWSchneider

2019-01-15 20:26:16 UTC

Post by Co Wiersma

Post by Hotzenplotz
snipped

I play the same range for an overcall as our 1N opener (ONLY if I'm playing strong NT) which is a good 14 to 17. Even if I'm playing 15-18, my argument (see below) holds water...
Yes, my pips are not great, but as you know, the Kings and Ace carry more weight in notrump, and MUCH more so on defense. But more importantly (because poster did not give vulnerability), I'm making a tactical bid (assuming NV vs V). In this case, I'm tossing in a slightly pre-emptive bid that will force responder to choose between a penalty double, pass, or a 2-level bid. If responder doubles (and opener accedes), I will pass, expecting to make 4 tricks on my hand alone for -500, while they are scoring at least 600 in their 3N contract. Also, in situations like this with competing notrump hands, the lead COSTS a trick (for example, if clubs break 4-2 with opponents having the J and Q, or T9 and Q.
While it is possible that responder has the necessary 10HCP (and balanced shape) to double, it is more likely that my bid has thrown a monkey wrench into his 1S response. More importantly, I'm trying to buy the contract at 1N from my side undoubled - or defend a 2-level contract at least. I do not want to defend 1N - what do you do after (1D) X (1N) P (P)? Lead your small club and hope for a 33 split? (see above - could cost)
Yes, my partner will expect a Q more but also will know that I deny 44 in the majors (else X for sure). But s/he will ABSOLUTELY get the expected defense from me - and 95% of the expected offense, since my HIGH honors are sitting nicely behind opener's.
My entire point for the 1N overcall is that there are tactical reasons for making bids sometimes, and IF we are WHITE, this qualifies as a tactical bid.

You are missing my point; while -300 is a bad score taken in a vacuum, against 600 their way it is a top. As I said in my post, opponents both competing in notrump generally produce 14 total tricks due to the lead penalty. (I found this in my SD notrump simulations, and explains why SD is 0.75 tricks better than DD when declaring 1N contracts - DD ALWAYS gets the lead right).

If I'm making 5 tricks, they are likely making 9 tricks. And opener has to pass the double as well. Tough double for them to leave in, since 1 trick is the difference between a top and a bottom for them.

judyorcarl@verizon.net

2019-01-15 19:20:27 UTC

Post by Hotzenplotz
snipped

I play the same range for an overcall as our 1N opener (ONLY if I'm playing strong NT) which is a good 14 to 17. Even if I'm playing 15-18, my argument (see below) holds water...
Yes, my pips are not great, but as you know, the Kings and Ace carry more weight in notrump, and MUCH more so on defense. But more importantly (because poster did not give vulnerability), I'm making a tactical bid (assuming NV vs V). In this case, I'm tossing in a slightly pre-emptive bid that will force responder to choose between a penalty double, pass, or a 2-level bid. If responder doubles (and opener accedes), I will pass, expecting to make 4 tricks on my hand alone for -500, while they are scoring at least 600 in their 3N contract. Also, in situations like this with competing notrump hands, the lead COSTS a trick (for example, if clubs break 4-2 with opponents having the J and Q, or T9 and Q.
While it is possible that responder has the necessary 10HCP (and balanced shape) to double, it is more likely that my bid has thrown a monkey wrench into his 1S response. More importantly, I'm trying to buy the contract at 1N from my side undoubled - or defend a 2-level contract at least. I do not want to defend 1N - what do you do after (1D) X (1N) P (P)? Lead your small club and hope for a 33 split? (see above - could cost)
Yes, my partner will expect a Q more but also will know that I deny 44 in the majors (else X for sure). But s/he will ABSOLUTELY get the expected defense from me - and 95% of the expected offense, since my HIGH honors are sitting nicely behind opener's.
My entire point for the 1N overcall is that there are tactical reasons for making bids sometimes, and IF we are WHITE, this qualifies as a tactical bid.

why would a 10+ responder need balanced shape to double 1NT overcall?

Carl

KWSchneider

2019-01-15 20:40:16 UTC

Post by Hotzenplotz
snipped

I play the same range for an overcall as our 1N opener (ONLY if I'm playing strong NT) which is a good 14 to 17. Even if I'm playing 15-18, my argument (see below) holds water...
Yes, my pips are not great, but as you know, the Kings and Ace carry more weight in notrump, and MUCH more so on defense. But more importantly (because poster did not give vulnerability), I'm making a tactical bid (assuming NV vs V). In this case, I'm tossing in a slightly pre-emptive bid that will force responder to choose between a penalty double, pass, or a 2-level bid. If responder doubles (and opener accedes), I will pass, expecting to make 4 tricks on my hand alone for -500, while they are scoring at least 600 in their 3N contract. Also, in situations like this with competing notrump hands, the lead COSTS a trick (for example, if clubs break 4-2 with opponents having the J and Q, or T9 and Q.
While it is possible that responder has the necessary 10HCP (and balanced shape) to double, it is more likely that my bid has thrown a monkey wrench into his 1S response. More importantly, I'm trying to buy the contract at 1N from my side undoubled - or defend a 2-level contract at least. I do not want to defend 1N - what do you do after (1D) X (1N) P (P)? Lead your small club and hope for a 33 split? (see above - could cost)
Yes, my partner will expect a Q more but also will know that I deny 44 in the majors (else X for sure). But s/he will ABSOLUTELY get the expected defense from me - and 95% of the expected offense, since my HIGH honors are sitting nicely behind opener's.
My entire point for the 1N overcall is that there are tactical reasons for making bids sometimes, and IF we are WHITE, this qualifies as a tactical bid.

why would a 10+ responder need balanced shape to double 1NT overcall?
Carl

Fair enough - but will opener leave in the double with an unbalanced hand as well - say a singleton somewhere? And is that your only take away from my post? You ignore the greater point to make a comment on something relatively insignificant?

If I have my 13 prime points and opener has 13 less-than-prime points, that leaves 14 points between responder and advancer, which will split 10-4 less than 25% of the time, affording me a 75% likelihood that responder does not have the requisite HCP to double. This is why it is a TACTICAL bid...

Unless I'm doubled, I am making a top if they have the majority of HCP.

Hotzenplotz

2019-01-16 00:16:29 UTC

Post by Hotzenplotz
snipped

I play the same range for an overcall as our 1N opener (ONLY if I'm playing strong NT) which is a good 14 to 17. Even if I'm playing 15-18, my argument (see below) holds water...
Yes, my pips are not great, but as you know, the Kings and Ace carry more weight in notrump, and MUCH more so on defense. But more importantly (because poster did not give vulnerability), I'm making a tactical bid (assuming NV vs V). In this case, I'm tossing in a slightly pre-emptive bid that will force responder to choose between a penalty double, pass, or a 2-level bid. If responder doubles (and opener accedes), I will pass, expecting to make 4 tricks on my hand alone for -500, while they are scoring at least 600 in their 3N contract. Also, in situations like this with competing notrump hands, the lead COSTS a trick (for example, if clubs break 4-2 with opponents having the J and Q, or T9 and Q.
While it is possible that responder has the necessary 10HCP (and balanced shape) to double, it is more likely that my bid has thrown a monkey wrench into his 1S response. More importantly, I'm trying to buy the contract at 1N from my side undoubled - or defend a 2-level contract at least. I do not want to defend 1N - what do you do after (1D) X (1N) P (P)? Lead your small club and hope for a 33 split? (see above - could cost)
Yes, my partner will expect a Q more but also will know that I deny 44 in the majors (else X for sure). But s/he will ABSOLUTELY get the expected defense from me - and 95% of the expected offense, since my HIGH honors are sitting nicely behind opener's.
My entire point for the 1N overcall is that there are tactical reasons for making bids sometimes, and IF we are WHITE, this qualifies as a tactical bid.

why would a 10+ responder need balanced shape to double 1NT overcall?
Carl

Fair enough - but will opener leave in the double with an unbalanced hand as well - say a singleton somewhere? And is that your only take away from my post? You ignore the greater point to make a comment on something relatively insignificant?
If I have my 13 prime points and opener has 13 less-than-prime points, that leaves 14 points between responder and advancer, which will split 10-4 less than 25% of the time, affording me a 75% likelihood that responder does not have the requisite HCP to double. This is why it is a TACTICAL bid...
Unless I'm doubled, I am making a top if they have the majority of HCP.

Kurt, I have a sneaking suspicion that you would make the same bid even playing Imps; if not I apologise for making that presumption.
Even at MPs there is certainly no guarantee of 4 tricks. In an absolute worst case scenario you might make 2 tricks only as pd may well not have an entry for you to lead to your Kings.
I played quite a lot with an ex British international. One of the things he taught me was that a 1NT overcall should always have a possible source of tricks, eg a 5 card suit that could be established. He would regularly pass 4333 or bad 4432 shapes with 15-16 poor non fitting points. I rarely saw him get a bad result by doing this.
I would not dream of a 1NT overcall on tis hand and would not be happy playing with a partner who thought this was ok.

KWSchneider

2019-01-16 13:25:50 UTC

On Tuesday, January 15, 2019 at 7:16:30 PM UTC-5, Hotzenplotz wrote:
<snipped>

Post by Hotzenplotz
Kurt, I have a sneaking suspicion that you would make the same bid even playing Imps; if not I apologise for making that presumption.
Even at MPs there is certainly no guarantee of 4 tricks. In an absolute worst case scenario you might make 2 tricks only as pd may well not have an entry for you to lead to your Kings.
I played quite a lot with an ex British international. One of the things he taught me was that a 1NT overcall should always have a possible source of tricks, eg a 5 card suit that could be established. He would regularly pass 4333 or bad 4432 shapes with 15-16 poor non fitting points. I rarely saw him get a bad result by doing this.
I would not dream of a 1NT overcall on tis hand and would not be happy playing with a partner who thought this was ok.

No worries - only at MPs, and only with specific tactical hands. I like this one because adding the SJ and another J somewhere (to get to that SPECIAL 15 HCP that everyone needs) will only add 1/3 to 1/2 trick. More importantly, if the X is to be successful (Note that I did not eliminate it in my original post), partner has to contribute in spades. And if s/he is contributing there, then I'm in good shape with my 1N overcall.

What I have found to be almost gospel in MPs: the first one to 1N wins. That's why I use weak or mini-1N openings - and the occasional 'light' overcall.

However, if you really want to get the most out of the 1N overcall as an auction-jammer, try what my current partner (pairs only) and I play in direct seat: 1N as a 3suit takeout with 4-14 HCP. We use X to show specific major suited hand shapes.

Sadly, MPs are not really bridge. They are more often than not, a battle for the least minus score. And tools (like mini-pre-emption using LoTT) to make life difficult for the opponents are valuable in the war.

And I agree entirely with your British International in IMPS. I pass the bulk of 15-18 defensive hands unless a) they have 2-4card majors, else double; or b) they are stopperless in opener's suit and have a suit (even 4cards) that begs introduction.

KWSchneider

2019-01-14 17:27:46 UTC

Hand 3: Either a forcing bid is forcing, or it is not. Change your system, or your partner if s/he won't follow it.

KWSchneider

2019-01-14 17:31:10 UTC

Hand 4: ASSUMING NO DRURY

a) being in 3N on these hands is not a bad thing in MP, probably unlucky to score 33%.

b) the whole issue here is partner's reluctance to reverse into 2S (why is this an overbid? Opposite a passed hand who has now shown 10-12- HCP, you want to be in game, and there is no worry that partner will run away with the auction) and it allows for the most informed decision. Doesn't jumping into 3N reflect the same strength? ALSO - does responder deny four spades with 100% certainty? (I would but...) With 4=1=6=2 and 9-10 points would responder bid 1S or 2D?

c) Key problem with this auction - the 3N jump shows 15-16 values but apparently unbalanced (did not open 1N), no six hearts, no four spades (would have reversed), black suit stoppers but no diamond support (must have singleton diamond to jump to 3N without exploring for alternative game). So as responder this tells me that opener is 3=5=1=4 with 15-16 HCP. Responder should have converted to 4H.

Auction should have gone ideally: P-1H;2D-2S;3H-4H OR after opener's gaffe: 1H-2D;3N-4H

Will in New Haven

2019-02-07 18:24:13 UTC